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GATE 2017-2018 Biotechnology Set 2
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1. Match the terms in Group I with the ploidy in Group II. Group I Group II P. Disome 1. 2n + 1 Q. Monosome 2. 2n “ 1 R. Nullisome 3. n “ 1 S. Trisome 4. n + 1
P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
2. Match the products in Group I with the applications in Group II. Group I Group II P. Digoxin 1. Muscle relaxant Q. Stevioside 2. Anti-cancer agent R. Atropine 3. Cardiovascular disorder S. Vinblastine 4. Sweetener
P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
3. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). Assertion: The production of secondary metabolites in plant cell cultures is enhanced by the addition of elicitors. Reason: Elicitors induce the expression of enzymes responsible for the biosynthesis of secondary metabolites.
Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(a) is true but (r) is false
(a) is false but (r) is true
4. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). Assertion: Plants convert fatty acids into glucose. Reason: Plants have peroxisomes.
Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
(a) is true but (r) is false
(a) is false but (r) is true
5. . Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). Assertion: In direct somatic embryogenesis, embryos are developed without going through callus formation. Reason: This is possible due to the presence of pre-embryonically determined cells.
Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
(a) is false but (r) is true
(a) is true but (r) is false
Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
6. Match the entries in Group I with the process parameters in Group II. Group I Group II P. Clark electrode 1. Liquid level Q. Redox probe 2. Dissolved oxygen concentration R. Load cell 3. Vessel pressure S. Diaphragm gauge 4. pH (anaerobic process)
P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
7. Match the downstream processes in Group I with the products in Group II. Group I Group II P. Solvent extraction 1. Lactic acid Q. Protein-A linked affinity chromatography 2. Penicillin R. Extractive distillation 3. Monoclonal antibody S. Salting out 4. Lipase
P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
8. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). Assertion: Cell mass yield of a methylotrophic yeast is more on methanol compared to glucose. Reason: Methanol has a greater degree of reductance compared to glucose.
Both (a) and (r) are correct and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(a) is correct, (r) is false
(a) is false, (r) is correct
Both (a) and (r) are correct but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
9. Match the organisms in Group I with the entries in Group II. Group I Group II P. Clostridium 1. Rods with teichoic acid in the cell wall Q. Escherichia 2. Rods with endospores R. Vibrio 3. Helical rods with flagella S. Bacillus 4. Rods with LPS in the outer membrane 5. Curved rods with polar flagella
P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1
P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4
P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3
P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
10. Match the entries in Group I with the methods of sterilization in Group II. Group I Group II P. Serum 1. Autoclave Q. Luria broth 2. Membrane filtration R. Polypropylene tubes 3. UV irradiation S. Biological safety cabinets 4. Gamma irradiation 5. Dry heat
P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4
P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3
P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5
11. Match the high energy compounds in Group I with the biosynthetic pathways for the molecules in Group II. Group I Group II P. GTP 1. Fatty acid Q. UTP 2. Phospholipid R. CTP 3. Protein S. Acyl coenzyme A 4. Peptidoglycan
P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
12. Match the vitamins in Group I with the processes/reactions in Group II. Group I Group II P. Pantothenic acid 1 . Electron transport Q. Vitamin B2 2. Transfer of 1-C units R. Vitamin B6 3. Decarboxylation S. Folic acid 4 . Fatty acid metabolism 5. Hydrolysis
P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1
P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5
13. Consider the data set 14, 18, 14, 14, 10, 29, 33, 31, 25. If you add 20 to each of the values, then
both mean and variance change
both mean and variance are unchanged
the mean is unchanged, variance changes
the mean changes, the variance is unchanged
14. A bacterial culture (200 ïl containing 1.8 * 109 cells) was treated with an antibiotic Z (50 μg per ml) for 4 h at 37ËšC. After this treatment, the culture was divided into two equal aliquots. Set A: 100 μl was plated on Luria agar. Set B: 100 μl was centrifuged, the cell pellet washed and plated on Luria agar. After incubating these two plates for 24 h at 37ËšC, Set A plate showed no colonies, whereas the Set B plate showed 0.9 * 109 cells. This experiment showed that the antibiotic Z is
bacteriostatic
bacteriocidal
bacteriolytic
apoptotic
15. In a muscle, the extracellular and intracellular concentrations of Na+ are 150 mM and 12 mM, and those of K+ are 2.7 mM and 140 mM, respectively. Assume that the temperature is 25oC and that the membrane potential is -60 mV, with the interior more negatively charged than the exterior. (R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1; F = 96.45 kJ mol-1 V-1) The free energy change for the transport of three Na+ out of the cell is
+1.5 kJ/mol
+17.4 kJ/mol
+18.9 kJ/mol
+36.3 kJ/mol
16. In a muscle, the extracellular and intracellular concentrations of Na+ are 150 mM and 12 mM, and those of K+ are 2.7 mM and 140 mM, respectively. Assume that the temperature is 25oC and that the membrane potential is -60 mV, with the interior more negatively charged than the exterior. (R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1; F = 96.45 kJ mol-1 V-1) The free energy change for the transport of two K+ into the cell is
+8.0 kJ/molB.
+11.6 kJ/mol
+19.6 kJ/mol
+31.2 kJ/mol
17. An E. coli cell of volume 10-12 cm3 contains 60 molecules of lac-repressor. The repressor has a binding affinity (Kd) of 10-8 M and 10-9 M with and without lactose respectively, in the medium. The molar concentration of the repressor in the cell is
0.1 nM
1 nM
10 nM
100 nM
18. An E. coli cell of volume 10-12 cm3 contains 60 molecules of lac-repressor. The repressor has a binding affinity (Kd) of 10-8 M and 10-9 M with and without lactose respectively, in the medium. Therefore the lac-operon is
repressed and can only be induced with lactose.
repressed and cannot be induced with lactose.
not repressed.
expressed only when glucose and lactose are present.
19. Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below? Mitigate Diminish
They gave us the money back less the service charges of Three Hundred rupees.
Divulge
Dedicate
Denote
20. Given the sequence of terms, AD CG FK JP, the next term is
OV
OW
PV
PW
21. Which of the following assertions are CORRECT? P: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the mean of the list Q: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the standard deviation of the list R: Doubling each entry in a list doubles the mean of the list S: Doubling each entry in a list leaves the standard deviation of the list unchanged
P, Q
Q, R
P, R
R,S
22. An automobile plant contracted to buy shock absorbers from two suppliers X and Y. X supplies 60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock absorbers. All shock absorbers are subjected to a quality test. The ones that pass the quality test are considered reliable. Of X's shock absorbers, 96% are reliable. Of Y's shock absorbers, 72% are reliable. The probability that a randomly chosen shock absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made by Y is
0.288.
0.334
0.667
0.720
23. Under alkaline conditions, DNA is more stable than RNA because
RNA forms secondary structures
RNA is a single stranded molecule
C. RNA has uracil in place of thymidine
RNA is susceptible to hydrolysis
24. Which one of the following modifications is common toboth protein and DNA?
SUMOylation
Nitrosylation
Methylation
Ubiquitination
25. The first humanized monoclonal antibody approved for the treatment of breast canceris A. RituximabB. CetuximabC. BevacizumabD. The first humanized monoclonal antibody approved for the treatment of breast canceris
Rituximab
Cetuximab
Bevacizumab
Herceptin
26. Which one of the following aminoacids in proteins does NOT undergo phosphorylation?
Ser
Thr
Pro
Tyr
27. The role of an adjuvant isto
prolong the persistence of antigen
cross link the antigen
increase the size of antigen
avoid inflammation
28. Endogenous antigens are presented on to the cell surface along with
MHC-II
MHC-I
Fcγreceptor
complement receptor
29. Human genome sequencing project involved the construction of genomic library in
bacterial artificial chromosome
pBR322C
bacteriophage
pcDNA3.1
30. Human genome sequencing project involved the construction of genomic library in
bacterial artificial chromosome
pBR322
bacteriophage
pcDNA3.1
31. Endogenous antigens are presented on to the cell surface along with
MHC-II
MHC-I
Fcγreceptor
complement receptor
32. Human genome sequencing project involved the construction of genomic library in
bacterial artificial chromosome
pBR322
bacteriophage
pcDNA3.1
33. The nucleotide analogue used in DNA sequencing by chain termination method is
1',3'-dideoxy nucleoside triphosphate
2',3'-dideoxy nucleoside triphosphate
',4'-dideoxy nucleoside triphosphate
2',5'-dideoxy nucleoside triphosphate
34. In nature, the horizontal gene transfer across bacteria is mediated by
gene cloning followed by transformation
conjugation and transformation
conjugation only
transformation only
35. Phylum proteobacteria is subdivided into α-, β-, ϒ-, δ- and ϵ-proteobacteria based on
G+C content
23S rRNA sequences
tRNA sequences
16S rRNA sequences
36. Which one of the following is an ABC transporter?
multidrug resistance protein
acetylcholine receptorC.
bacteriorhodopsin
ATP synthase
37. The catalytic efficiency for an enzyme is definedas
kcat
vmax/kcat
kcat/km
kcat/vmax
38. Of the two diploid species, species I has 36 chromosomes and species II has 28 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be found in an allotriploid individual?
42 or 54
46 or 50
74 or 86
84 or 108
39. The RNA primer synthesized during the replication process in bacteria is removed by
DNA gyrase
primase
DNA polymeraseI
DNA polymerase II
40. The suitable substitution matrix to align closely related sequences is
PAM 250 or BLOSSUM 80
PAM 40 or BLOSSUM 80
PAM 120 or BLOSSUM 40
PAM 250 or BLOSSUM 40
41. Hypophosphatemia is manifested by an X-linked dominant allele.What proportion of the offsprings from a normal male and an affected heterozygous female will manifest the disease?
½ sons and ½ daughters
all daughters and no sons
all sons and no daughters
¼ daughters and ¼ sons
42. A callus of 5 g dry weight was inoculated on semi-solid medium for growth. The dry weight of the callus was found to increase by 1.5 fold after 10 days of inoculation. The growth index of the culture is _________
0.3
0.5
0.7
0.9
43. A chemostat is operated at a dilution rate of 0.6 h-1. At steady state, the biomass concentration in the exit stream was found to be 30 g l-1. The biomass productivity (g l-1h-1) after 3h of steady state operation will be ___________
3
9
18
27
44. A batch bioreactor is to be scaled up from 10 to 10,000 liters. The diameter of the large bioreactor is 10 times that of the small bioreactor. The agitator speed in the small bioreactor is 450 rpm. Determine the agitator speed (rpm) of the large bioreactor with same impeller tip speed as that of the small bioreactor. _________
45
40
50
55
45. Calculate the percentage sequence identity for the pairwise alignment given below. _______ H E L L O “ Y E L L O W
33.6 to 33.8
25.9 to 26.1
54.7 to 54.9
66.5 to 66.7
46. Calculate the percentage sequence identity for the pairwise alignment given below. _______ H E L L O “ Y E L L O W
33.6 to 33.8
25.9 to 26.1
54.7 to 54.9
66.5 to 66.7
47. Match the commercial microbial sources in Group I with the products in Group II. Group I Group II P. Corynebacteriumlilium 1. 2,3-Butane di-ol Q. Klebsiellaoxytoca 2. Poly-β-hydroxybutyric acid R. Aspergillusniger 3. Glutamic acid S. Alcaligeneseutrophus 4. Citric acid
P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4
P-3,Q-1,R-4,S-2
P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-4
P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
48. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). Assertion: Immobilization of plant cells can enhance secondary metabolite production during bioreactor cultivation. Reason: Immobilization protects the plant cells from shear forces in the bioreactor.
Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a).
Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a).
(a) is true but (r) is false.
(a) is false but (r) is true.
49. Match the antibioticsin Group I with the targets in Group II. Group I Group II P. Sulfonamide 1. Peptidoglycan synthesis Q. Quinolones 2. Peptide chain elongation R. Erythromycin 3. Folic acid biosynthesis S. Cephalosporin 4. Topoisomerase
P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
50. In nature, Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated infection of plant cells leads to P. crown gall disease in plants Q. hairy root disease in plants R. transfer of T-DNA into the plant chromosome S. transfer of Ri-plasmid into the plant cell
S only
P and R only
Q and S only
Q only
51. Match the entries in Group I with the enzymes in Group II. Group I Group II P. NAD+ 1. Glutathione peroxidase Q. Selenium 2. Nitrogenase R. Pyridoxal phosphate 3. Lactate dehydrogenase S. Molybdenum 4. Glycogen phosphorylase
P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
52. Match the herbicides in Group I with the target enzymes in Group II. Group I Group II P. Glyphosate 1. Nitrilase Q. Bromoxynil 2. Acetolactatesynthetase R. Sulphonylureas 3. Dehalogenase S. Dalapon 4. 5-Enolpyruvyl shikimate3-phosphate synthase
P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
53. Match the entries in Group I with the entries in Group II. Group I Group II P. RNAse P 1. Polyadenylation Q. RNase H 2. Splicing R. snRNAs 3. Ribozymes S. CstF 4. DNA-RNAhybrids
P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
54. 36. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). Assertion: UPGMA method produces ultrametric tree. Reason:Sequence alignment is converted into evolutionary distances in UPGMA method.
Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
(a) is true but (r) is false
(a) is false but (r) is true
55. Match the entries in the Group I with the entries in Group II. Group I Group II P. Threading 1. Gene duplication Q. FASTA 2. Fold prediction R. Profile 3. HMM S. Paralogs 4. k-tuple
P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
56. . The Laplace transform of f(t) = 2t + 6 is
1/s + 2/s2
3/s - 6/s2
6/s + 2/s2
-6/s + 2/s2
57. The solution of the following set of equations is x + 2y + 3z = 20 7x + 3y + z = 13 x + 6y + 2z = 0
x = -2, y = 2, z = 8
x = 2, y = -3, z = 8
x = 2, y = 3, z = -8
x = 8, y = 2, z = -3
58. The solution to dy/dx + y cot x = cosec x is
y = (c+x) cot x
y = (c+x) cosec x
y = (c + x) cosec x cot x
y = (c+x) cosec x/cot x
59. A complete restriction digestion of a circular plasmid (5000bp) was carried out with HindIII,BamHIandEcoRI individually. Restriction digestion yielded following fragments. Plasmid + HindIII→ 1200bp and3800bp Plasmid + BamHI→5000bp Plasmid + EcoRI→ 2500bp The number of sites for EcoRI,BamHIandHindIIIpresent on this plasmid are
EcoRI-2, BamHI-1, HindIII-2
EcoRI-1, BamHI-1, HindIII-
EcoRI-3, BamHI-2, HindIII-1
EcoRI-2, BamHI-2, HindIII-1
60. The total number of fragments generated by the complete and sequential cleavage of the polypeptide given below by Trypsin followed by CNBr is _________ Phe-Trp-Met-Gly-Ala-Lys-Leu-Pro-Met-Asp-Gly-Arg-Cys-Ala-Gln
5
10
15
25
61. In a genetic study, 80 people were found to have alleles for polydactyly. Only 36 of them were polydactylous. What is the extent of penetrance percentage? ________
40
45
50
60
62. One percent of the cars manufactured by a company are defective. What is the probability (upto four decimals) that more than two cars are defective, if 100 cars are produced? __________
0.034 to 0.044
0.037 to 0.038
0.075 to 0.085
0.048 to 0.058
63. The maximum cell concentration (g l-1) expected in a bioreactor with initial cell concentration of 1.75 g l-1 and an initial glucose concentration of 125 g l-1 is (Yx/s = 0.6 g cell/g substrate) ________
67.4 to 67.
43.4 to 43.6
87.4 to 87.6
76.7 to 76.9
64. A fed batch culture was operated with intermittent addition of glucose solution at a flow rate of 200 ml h-1. The values of Ks, μm and D are 0.3 g l-1, 0.4 h-1 and 0.1 h-1, respectively. Determine the concentration of growth limiting substrate (gl-1) in the reactor at quasi-steady state. ____________
0.4
0.2
0.1
0.7
65. A solution was prepared by dissolving 100 mg of protein X in 100 ml of water. Molecular weight of protein X is 15,000 Da; Avogadro's number = 6.022 * 1023. Calculate the molarity(μM) of the resulting solution.
66.6
6.6
0.67
0.067
66. A DNA fragment of 5000bp needs to be isolated from E.coli (genome size 4*103kb) genomic library. The minimum number of independent recombinant clones required to represent this fragment in genomic library are
16*102
12*102
8*102
1.25*102
67. All professors are researchers Some scientists are professors Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above arguments:
All scientists are researchers
All professors are scientists
Some researchers are scientists
No conclusion follows
68. If |-2X + 9| = 3 then the possible value of |-X| - X2 would be:
30
-30
-42
42
69. Following table gives data on tourists from different countries visiting India in the year 2011. Which two countries contributed to the one third of the total number of tourists who visited India in 2011?
USA and Japan
USA and Australia
England and France
Japan and Australia
70. In a factory, two machines M1 and M2 manufacture 60% and 40% of the autocomponents respectively. Out of the total production, 2% of M1 and 3% of M2 are found to be defective. If a randomly drawn autocomponent from the combined lot is found defective, what is the probability that it was manufactured by M2?
0.35
0.45
0.5
0.4
71. The Headmaster ___________ to speak to you. Which of the following options is incorrect to complete the above sentence?
is wanting
wants
want
was wanting
72. The Headmaster ___________ to speak to you. Which of the following options is incorrect to complete the above sentence?
is wanting
wants
want
was wanting
73. All engineering students should learn mechanics, mathematics and how to do computation. I II III IV Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is not appropriate?
I
II
III
IV
74. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair: water: pipe::
cart: road
electricity: wire
sea: beach
music: instrument
75. Velocity of an object fired directly in upward direction is given by V = 80 - 32 t, where t (time) is in seconds. When will the velocity be between 32 m/sec and 64 m/sec?
(1, 3/2)
(1/2, 1)
(1/2, 3/2)
(1, 3)
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